.. ~· ~~·1r/~· tL~:S ./ SM-11.25.1 JULY 1977 ~-~,) BISON BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DfffNSf OFFICfR QUIZZES & EXAMINATION DEPARTMENT OF DEFENSE • DEFENSE CIVIL PREPAREDNESS AGENCY :1 0 2 2 4 • SUN~ AT BUFFALO D ~;it, LIBR/~RIESEt o~,f TORY COpy -~ ) PREFACE This Student Manual, SM-11.25.1, is designed as a supplement to the "Basic Radiological Defense Officer Student Manual", SM-11.25, and the "Basic Radiological Defense Officer Instructor Guide", IG-11. 25. It contains one copy of each of the three quizzes and the final examination. Course instructors are encouraged to use this Student Manual in place of reproducing the quizzes and examination from IG-11.25. This Student Manual has been prepared so that each quiz and the final examination may be separated as an individual packet, stapled, and handed out to each student in the Basic Radiological Defense Officer course at the appropriate time. The answer sheets, Nomograms, exposure rate history curve and graph paper necessary for use in completing the three quizzes and final examination are contained in the back of SM-11.25. Each student should record his answers on the corresponding answer sheets contained in SM-11.25. It is reco~~ended that each quiz and the final examination be collected by the instructor after completion and review, and not be left for retention by the student as they can be used in subsequent courses. ) i / • • CONTENTS Page Quiz No. 1 1-1 Quiz No. 2 2-1 Quiz No. 3 3-1 Final Examination Exam-1 iii BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. 1 Type of Quiz: Multiple-Choice -BEST ANSWER Quiz Value: Ten points Time: 30 minutes (including review) --\ ! Materials Required: Answer Sheet-Quiz No. 1 from SM-11. 25 Pencil NOTE: DO NOT WRITE ON THIS QUIZ. USE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED IN SM-11. 25. RETURN QUIZ TO INSTRUCTOR AFTER COMPLETION OF QUIZ REVIEW. DO NOT OPEN THIS QUIZ UNTIL DIRECTED 1-1 BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. l l. The primary role of the Radiological Defense Officer in civil preparedness is to: a. Monitor fallout radiation and report instrument measurements to the EOC. b. Provide information and technical advice on the radiological situation. c. Predict the radiological fallout pattern within the local area and provide fallout warnings. d. Provide monitoring, reporting and decontamination in the event of a peacetime radiation incident. 2. The reaction best describing the process of nuclear fusion is: are formed from lighter ones. are split to form lighter ones. fissioned to form still lighter ones. fissioned to form heavier ones. 3. The two identities always present in equal number in an electricall:y a. Heavier elements b. Heavier elements c. Light nuclei are d. Light nuclei are neutral atom are: a. Electrons and neutrons. b. Electrons and protons. c. Electrons and beta particles. d. Neutrons and protons. 4. The chronological order of events accompanying are: a. Fireball, fallout, thermal wave, blast. b. Fireball, thermal wave, blast, fallout. c. Fireball, blast, thermal wave, fallout. d. Blast, fireball, thermal wave, fallout. a nuclear detonation 1-3 5. The control knob of the CD V-715 must be turned to the zero position before zeroing: a. To reduce the voltage on the ion chamber, permitting the balance circuit to align.the needle. • b. To engage the shorting potentiometer so that residual high voltage can be removed from the ion chamber. c. To remove the ion chamber from the circuit so any radiation in the vicinity will not affect the reading. d. To make available the full voltage of the "D" battery to swing the needle to the "zero" area. 6. The most important hazard from fallout is: a. Inhalation of fallout. b. Skin contamination. c. External radiation exposure. d. Ingestion of fallout. 7. Isotopes are: a. Different for.ms of the same element. b. Elements with different proton numbers. c. Subatomic particles. d. Elements with different proton numbers but the same mass numbers. 8. A monitor located in a basement monitoring station is actively using which two measures to reduce his exposure? a. Time and distance. b. Time and shielding. c. Shielding and distance. d. None of the above. 1-4 • 9. Contaminated fruits and vegetables: a. Should not be used. b. Should be stored in an area with a high protection factor. c. Should be decontaminated and used as needed. d. Should be protected from beta radiation exposure. 10. In a surface burst, the nuclear weapons effect that will endanger life over the largest area is: a. Thermal radiation. b. Radioactive fallout. c. Blast and electromagnetic radiation. d. Initial nuclear radiation. l -~ \ 1-5 • BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. 2 Type of Quiz: Multiple-Choice and Problems -BEST ANSWER Quiz Value: Twenty points Time: 30 minutes (including review) • Materials Required: Answer Sheet-Quiz No. 2 from SM-11.25 Exposure Rate Nomogram from SM-11.25 Entry Time-Stay Time-Total Exposure Nomogram from SM-11.25 Exposure Rate History Curve for ~fonitoring Station X from SM-11.25 Straightedge Pin NOTE: DO NOT WRITE ON THIS QUIZ. USE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED IN SM-11.25. RETURN QUIZ TO INSTRUCTOR AFTER COMPLETION OF QUIZ REVIEW, DO NOT OPEN THIS QUIZ UNTIL DIRECTED 2-1 BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. 2 PART I: Multiple-Choice (12 Points) 1. The normal height for taking a reading with the CD V-715 is: a. 1 foot. c. Any convenient height. b. 3 feet. d. Ground level. 2. A monitor measured the outside exposure rate and found it to be 160 R/hr. We immediately went inside the shelter area and measured 4 R/hr. The outside/inside ratio of the shelter is! a. 60. c 0 40. b. 20. d. 30. 3. Several hours later the monitor in the above question determines ·---~ the inside exposure rate to be 6 R/hr. What is the approximate outside exposure rate? a. 24 R/hr. c. 180 Rjhr. b. 120 R/hr. d. 240 R/hr. 4. A dosimeter was exposed outside for 20 minutes and showed an increase of 25 R. During this period what was the average exposure rate? a. 240 R/hr. c. 75 R/hr. b. 500 R/hr. d. 100 R/hr. 5. An exposure rate history curve plotted on log-log paper can be used to: a. Forecast exposure rates. b. Calculate the rate of fallout dec~y. c. Estimate the exposure that will be received on an outside mission of given duration. d. All of the above. ~ 2-3 6. When the slope of a fallout dec~y curve is straight, this indicates: a. The value of the fallout decay exponent is constMt and CM be used for predicting future exposure rates within specified time limits. b. The value of the fallout dec~y exponent is changing and CMnot be used for predicting future exposure rates. c. That fallout is complete Md future exposure rates CM be predicted using 1.2 as the value of the fallout dec~y exponent. d. That fallout is still depositing and future exposure rates should not be predicted until it is complete. 7. The fallout dec~y exponent (n) will vary with: a. Bomb design. b. Neutron-induced activity. c. Weathering. d. All of the above. 8. The value of n =-l.2 (stMdard fallout dec~y exponent): a. Has limited operational use. b. Is quite satisfactory for planning purposes. c. Could be the actual decay exponent. d. All of the above. 9. Decay characteristics of n (fallout dec~y exponent) range from about -.9 to-2.2. The higher the number the: a. Flatter the slope. b. Steeper the slope. c. Higher the exposure rate. d. Lower the exposure rate. 2-4 10. The RADEF Officer1 s primary duty after developing an operational capability is to: a. Prepare and conduct exercises for monitors and RADEF staff. b. Prepare and conduct exercises for emergency operating center personnel. c. Provide refresher training for monitors and RADEF staff. area. d. Select targets that could produce fallout in his ll. The most important duty of a monitor is : a. Weapon effects reporting. b. Measuring, recording, and reporting of radiation exposure rates. c. Providing limited guidance. d. Monitoring personnel, food, and water. 12. If exposure rate observations have been decreasing for the preceding 12 hours, the exposure rate history curve can be reasonably extended for: a. l hour. '--~ I b. 12 hours. I c. 6 hours. d. 24 hours. PART II CONTINUED ON PAGE 14-7 2-5 PART II: Problems (8 Points) • DIRECTIONS: Show calculations and answers in the space provided on the answer sheet. Use the attached exposure rate history curve for problems 1 and 2 ONLY. Work 3 and 4 using nomograms. l. On the attached exposure rate history curve, when will the exposure rate reach 4 R/hr? 2. What is the value of the fallout decay exponent (n) at H + 50? 3. If the exposure rate at H + 30 is 10 R/hr, when would the exposure rate be 7 R/hr? 4. At H + l the exposure rate was 200 R/hr. If entry into the area is made at H + 6 and the mission exposure is set at 50 R, what is the allowable stay time? 2-6 -~ ' BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. 3 Type of Quiz: Multiple-Choice and Matching -BEST ANSWER Quiz Value: Fifteen points Time: 30 minutes (including review) Materials Require d: Answer Sheet-Quiz No. Pencil 3 from SM-11.25. NOTE: DO NOT WRITE ON THIS QUIZ. USE ANSWER SHEET PROVIOED IN SM-11.25. RETURN QUIZ TO INSTRUCTOR AFTER COMPLETION OF QUIZ REVIEW. DO NOT OPEN THIS QUIZ UNTIL DIRECTED 3-1 BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER QUIZ NO. 3 PART I: Multiple-Choice (10 Points) 1. A radiological flash report is made: a. Upon reporting for duty at a monitoring station. b. After observing a blinding light in the sky. c. When the radiation level reaches 0.5 R/hr. d. When the radiation level reaches 5.0 R/hr. 2. When an exploding weapon has been identified as nuclear, the report in the RADEF system is called a: a. Fallout Warning Report. b. Nudet Report. c. Flash Report. d. Damage Estimation Report. 3. Reports on the effects following a nuclear detonation are called: a. DF Reports. b. Fallout Reports. c. Weapons Effects Reports. d. Flash Reports. 4. In general, transfer of persons from a shelter with limited protection to a better shelter should not be considered advisable unless the new shelter improves the outside/inside ratio by a factor of at least: a. 5. c. 20. b. 10. d. 100. 5. It is helpful to time phase RADEF operations because: a. Good planning requires it. b. It makes planning so much simpler. • c. Each of the agencies involved needs to have this done for them. d. Phase objectives differ and the central and peripheral countermeasures change in each phase. 6. A Radiological Service Plan is essential since: a. It provides more specific procedures than the Basic Plan. b. It provides for the irrational reactions of people. c. It provides a legal basis for RADEF operations. d. All of the above. 7. The basic Federal statute governing and legitimizing civil defense activities in the U. S. is commonly known as: a. Title 32, Code of Federal Regulations. b. Public Law 920. c. Public Law 9l-606. d. Executive Order l0952. 8. An aerial monitoring capability should be developed in conjunctionwith: a. DCPA Region. b. State Civil Preparedness Agency. c. State National Guard. d. Local RADEF Officer. 9. Radiation exposure guidelines for emergency operations are designed to: a. Limit exposure to prescribed limits. b. Insure survival. c. Predict what will happen if a person is exposed. d. None of the above. 3-4 10. AI3 operational objectives of a community change from "survival" to "recovery": a. More detailed information on radiation levels in specific areas will be needed. b. Less detailed information on radiation levels in specific areas will be needed. c. There should be no change in the requirements for information on radiation levels in specific areas. will no longer d. Information on radiation levels in specific areas be required at DCPA Regions. '------._ \ 3-5 PART II: Matching (5 Points) DIRECTIONS: In the parenthesis ( ) provided on the answer sheet, write the letter from Column 2 that matches the statement in Column 1. Each item in Column 2 can be used only once. Column 1 1. is the central countermeasure 'dUring the emergency phase. 2. is the central countermeasure during the operational recovery phase. 3· is any method used to control fallout particles or access thereto. 4. reduces radiation exposures ~is not considered to be a countermeasure. 5. has as its objective the reestablishment of essential functions. Column 2 a. Contamination control b. Exposure control c. Remedial movement d. Radiological decay e. Operational recovery phase f. Unlimited operations g. Final recovery phase h. Emergency operations i. Decontamination j. Shelter ( 3-6 \ • FINAL EXAMINATION Type of Examination: Multiple-Choice -BEST ANSWER Value of Examination: 55 points Time of Examination: 60 Minutes Materials Required: Answer Sheet-Final Examination from SM-11.25 Exposure Rate Nomogram from SM-11.25 Entry Time-Stay Time-Total Exposure Nomogram from SM-11.25 Graph Paper-one sheet Logarithmic from SM-11. 25 Straightedge Pin Scratch Paper NOTE: DO NOT WRITE ON THIS FINAL EXAMINATION. USE ANSWER SHEET PROVIDED IN SM-11.25. RETURN FINAL EXAMINATION TO INSTRUCTOR AFTEJ COMPLETION OF EXAMINATION REVIEW. DO NOT BEGIN THIS EXAM UNTIL DIRECTED BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER Exam-1 BASIC RADIOLOGICAL DEFENSE OFFICER Final Examination l. Which of the following is the legal basis for the National Civil Defense Program? a. PL 8l-875, as amended. c. PL 8l-920, as amended. b. PL 9l-606, as amended. d. PL 88-335. 2. The purpose of the Radiological Defense System is to: a. Provide the Federal, State and local governments with radiological information in the event of nuclear attack. b. Provide control of technical guidance for radiation exposures in emergency. c. Provide guidance to the fallout shelter system to minimize the effects of fallout radiation on people. d. All of the above. 3. In a surface burst, the nuclear weapons effect that will endanger life over the largest area is: a. Thermal radiation. b. Radioactive fallout. c. Blast and electromagnetic radiation. d. Initial nuclear radiation. 4. During and after deposition, radioactive fallout exists as: a. Gas. c. Particles. b. Liquid. d. None of the above. 5. If two atoms of hydrogen and one atom. of oxygen combine chemically, they form: a. One molecule of the element water. b. One atom of the element water. c. One molecule of the compound water. d. One atom of the compound water. Exam-3 '\, 6. The three basic subatomic particles are: a. Ions, isotopes, and neutrons. b. Neutrons, ions, and electrons. c. Atoms, ions, and electrons. d. Electrons, protons, and neutrons. 7. The number of protons contained in the nucleus of an atom is called its: a. Element (X) number. c. Atomic (Z) number. b. Mass (A) number. d. Isotope. 8. The unit of radioactivity is defined as the quantity of radioactive material in which 3.7 x lol0 disintegrations occur per second. It is called the: a. Electron volt. c. Half life. b. Roentgen. d. Curie. 9. Three common types of nuclear radiation are alpha, beta and gamma rays. Which one of the following statements is false? a. Alpha particles are relatively slow particles and are identical to a helium nucleus. b. Beta particles are positive charged particles that travel at the speed of light. c. Gamma rays are electromagnetic in nature and travel at the speed o:f light. d. Ganuna rays are pure energy similar to X-rays and are the most penetrating of the three types mentioned. lO. The energy unit of any radiation emission is the: a. Roentgen. c. Electron volt. b. Curie. d. Ion. ll. At the time of cloud stabilization for a nuclear weapon surface burst, the largest amount of radioactive material is located: a. In the stem. c. At the top of the cloud. b. At the base of the cloud. d. In the middle of the cloud. Exam-4 12. The highest ranking hazard from fallout is: a. Inhalation of fallout. c. External radiation exposure. b. Skin contamination. d. Ingestion of fallout. 13. The least important source of radioactive material in the formation of fallout from the surface detonation of a thermonuclear weapon is: a. Neutron-induced radioactive isotopes. b. Fusion products. c. Unfissioned U or Pu. d. Fission products. 14. How does fallout affect the air through which it has passed and the surface on which it has settled? a. The air and the surface are radioactive. b. The surface is radioactive but not the air. c. The surface is contaminated but the air is not. d. The air and the surface are contaminated. 15. Induced radioactivity from a nuclear detonation is due mainly to: --\ I ) a. Neutrons. c. Fission products. _/ b. Gamma radiation. d. Unfissioned material. 16. The exposure rate indicated is: a. .15 mR/hr. CD V-700 b. 1.5 mR/hr. c. 15 mR/hr. d. 150 mR/hr. X1 X10 X100-o OFF Exam-5 l7. Who is in charge of an EOC during a real disaster? a. The Civil Preparedness Coordinator. b. The Operation Group Chief. \ c. The highest elected official of the jurisdiction. d. The controller. lB. In the EOC, who determines what the response will be to a particularemergency situation? a. The Operations Group Chief. b. The Civil Preparedness Coordinator. c • The mayor. d. The assigned operations officer. l9. What is the role of the Disaster Analysis Group in the EOC? a. To provide advice and assistance to the Operations Room staffon disaster effects. b. To estimate damage. c. To assess damage. d. To provide advice on radiological defense problems. 20. Monitors should be assigned: a. To facilities near where they work. b. To facilities near where they reside. c. On the basis of their commitment. d. To a facility where needed. 2l. The CD V-700, 0-50 mR/hr survey meter will: a. Produce off-scale readings for exposure rates of 50 mR/hr tol R/hr. b. Jam and read zero at exposure rates in excess of l R/hr. c. Measure garmna exposure rates from 0-50 mR/hr. d. All of the above. E:xam-6 22. The CD V-700, 0-50 mR/hr survey meter will detect: ~ 'I a. Alpha and beta radiation. I b. Beta radiation only. c. Beta and ganma radiation. d. Gamma radiation only. 23. The instrument designed to measure exposure to gamma radiation is a: a. Dosimeter. c. Geiger counter. b. Survey meter. d. Charger. 24. If the initial recording of the monitor's dosimeter was 15 m.R, what has been his exposure? a. 70 roentgens. b. 60 milliroentgens. c. 55 milliroentgens. d. 50 rads. 25. A dosimeter read 10 R when issued to a person in a fallout area. A reading three hours later indicated 20 R. What should the person wearing the dosimeter infer from this information? a. The dosimeter is leaking so rapidly that it should not be used. b. The amount of radiation to which this person was exposed was 10 R. c. The exposure rate at the time of exposure was 10 R/hr. d. The amount of radiation to which this person was exposed was 20 R. 26. With fresh batteries a CD V-715 should operate intermittently for at least: a. 1 day. c. 6 days. b. 3 da:ys. d. 14 days. ----"\ I ! Exam-7 27. The basic measuring unit with which all civil defense instruments are marked is the: a. Curie. c. Rem. b. Rad. d. Roentgen. 28. The instrument designed to show the rate of exposure to nuclear radiation is a/an: a. CD V-742 dosimeter. c. CD V-750 dosimeter charger. b. CD V-7l5 survey meter. d. All of the above. 29. The monitor dela:ys going on an outside mission until the outside exposure rate decays to a safe level. By this dela:y he is using which of the following to reduce his exposure? a. Distance. c. Shielding. b. Time. d. Attenuation. 30. Four feet from a point radiation source you are being exposed at the rate of 20 mR/hr. What is your accumulated exposure after l5 minutes in this location? a. 5 mR. c. l5 mR. b. lO mR. d. 20 mR. 3l. You are located in a radiation area where your dosimeter has accumulated l2 R in 20 minutes. By this you note that the average exposure rate during this time has been approximately: a. l2 R/hr. c. 240 R/hr. b. 24 R/hr. d. 36 R/hr. 32. Reports which tell where fallout may come down are called: a. Flash reports. c. DF reports. b. Fallout reports. d. Weapons effects reports. The roentgen is a radiation measure of: 33· a. Absorbed exposure to gamma ra:ys. b. Absorbed exposure to gamma and X-ra:ys. c. Exposure to gamma rays and neutrons. d. Exposure to gamma and x-ra:ys. Exam-8 34. When a radioactive isotope is taken into the body, the extent of damage is determined by: a. The type of radiation emitted and the half life of the isotope. b. The rate at which the isotope is excreted from the body. c. The place of deposition of the isotope in the body. d. All of the above. 35. The contamination of food, other than fresh milk, by fallout is: a. An unimportant problem. c. A short-term problem. b. A major problem. d. A long-term problem. 36. After a nuclear weapon attack, contaminated personnel with superficial flesh wounds should be: a. Decontaminated and then treated for radiation sickness. b. Decontaminated and then treated for the injuries received. c. Treated for radiation sickness and then decontaminated. d. Treated for the injuries received and for radiation sickness. 37. If a person has been exposed to 450 roentgens of radiation: -~ a. His chances of survival are approximately 50-50. b. No valid conclusions can be drawn, since the duration of exposure and the extent to which the body has been irradiated are not known. c. He will be violently ill and will have many undesirable aftereffects. d. He has received a lethal exposure. 38. The severity of radiation sickness depends upon the: a. Total exposure. b. Total exposure and body area exposed. c. Duration of exposure and body area exposed. d. Duration of exposure, total exposure, and the body area exposed. 39. From the monitoring station data below, the value of the decay exponent "n" is: a. (-) 0.9. c. (-) 1.5. b. (-) 1.4. d. (-) 2.1. MONITORING STATION J DATA Exposure Time Rate H+ 5 3 H+ 6 9 H + 7 17 H+ 8 18 H+ 9 15 H+ 10 17 H+ 11 15 H+ 12 13 H + 13 12 H+ 14 11 H+ 15 10 GRAPH PAPER SUITABLE FOR PLOTTING THIS DATA CAN BE FOUND IN SM-11. 25. Exam-10 40. Using the DF data below, what group of digits would you use at MSP if Mason City received a 3 MT burst at 1600 CST? a. 09ll. c. 1009. b. 1307. d. None of the above. DF Data observed at 0600 CST DBQ 1607 1507 1207 DSM 1606 1406 ll06 MSP 1307 1009 09ll 41. The most likely ecological consequence of nuclear war would be: a. A new ice age. b. End of all life on the planet Earth. c. Melting of the polar ice caps. d. Outbreaks of disease-carrying insects and rodents in damaged urban areas. 42. On an outside mission, a monitor should: a. Follow procedures and techniques developed by the shelter ~~ manager. b. Follow procedures and techniques outlined in the local emergency plan. c. Follow instructions given by the Nuclear Regulatory Corrnnission. d. Develop and follow their own procedures and techniques. 43. A monitor measured the outside exposure rate and found it to be 175 R/hr. He irrnnediately went inside the shelter area and measured 5 R/hr. The outside/inside ratio of the shelter is: a. 60. c •. 35 b. 20. d. 30. 44. Several ho~s later the monitor of question 43 determines the inside exposure rate to be 6 R/hr. What is the approximate outside exposure rate? a. 24 R/hr. · c • 180 R/hr • b. 120 R/hr. d. 210 R/hr. Exam-11 45. The CD V-717 survey meter differs from the CD V-715 in that: a. It is slower to respond. c. It runs longer on its battery. b. It is more accurate. d. The CD V-717 has remote reading capability. 46. Regarding shelter operations, which of the following is most nearly correct: a. People Should not be overcrowded in shelters because of the danger of anoxia. b. During the early hours after fallout arrival, people should be crowded into the best available shelter to minimize exposures. c. Healthy individuals should be given the better protected areas in the shelter because sick people will die anyway. d. All persons who enter the shelter after fallout arrival should be decontaminated no matter how long it takes. 47. For short-term forecasting by the monitor: a. The nomograms are assumed to be satisfactory. b. Only survey meters should be used. c. The value of "n" (fallout decay exponent) must be computed. d. The neutron-induced activity must first be determined. 48. The "representative exposure rate" for a city is: a. The estimated average rate of exposure to shelter occupants. b. The average exposure rate from randomly selected monitoring stations. c. A single exposure rate which reflects the general radiological situation for the entire city. d. The single exposure rate that should be used for planning postrecovery operations. 49. The principal countermeasure during the Operational Recovery Phase is: c. Contamination control. a. Shelter. d. Remedial movement. b. Decontamination. Exam-12 50. It is helpful to time-phase RADEF operations because: • a. Each of the agencies involved needs to have this done for them. b. Phase objectives are different and thus the central and peri pheral countermeasures change in each phase. c • Good planning requires it• d. It makes planning so much simpler. 51. Which of the following is not a radiological countermeasure? a. Shelter. c. Exposure control. b. Decontamination. d. Time (radiation decay). 52. Three hours after a nuclear explosion the radiation exposure rate outside a civil preparedness warehouse was found to be 80 R/hr. What will the exposure rate be in this area at H + 4 days? a. 1.30 R/hr. c. 13 R/hr. b. .13 R/hr. d. 130 Rjhr. 53. A salvage crew must remain in a contaminated area 3 hours to accomplish their task. The exposure rate in this area 1 hour after the burst was 500 R/hr. The crew entered this area 9 hours after the burst. What radiation exposure will they receive while in this area? / a. 16 R. c. 100 Rjhr. b. 1.6 R. d. 100 R. 54. The principal objective of the Emergency Phase is: a. Minimize exposures. c • Survival. b. Restore normal functions. d. Reestablish essential functions. 55. Monitoring station locations are selected first for their: a. Communications capability. b. Geographical dispersion. c. Best available fallout protection. d. Four trained monitors. EXam-13 * U. S. GOVERNMENT PRINTING OFFICE: 1977 729-450/586